Someone once said..."A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still."Deja' vu all over again...
Someone once said..."A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still."Deja' vu all over again...
Except that he has yet to convince anyone.Someone once said..."A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still."
The link is higher up in the thread.Which one? Link?
Then maybe someone else should come up with an explanation that has anything to do with the text. They won’t because they can’t but they should at least try.Except that he has yet to convince anyone.![]()
Some of us find it reasonable to draw a conclusion from the examples given in the absence of a definitive mandate.Then maybe someone else should come up with an explanation that has anything to do with the text. They won’t because they can’t but they should at least try.
I mean it is Biblical Families, not “I speculate wildly” families.
Why is there an absence of a definitive mandate? Why is a matter of life and death left obscured? If there isn’t a definitive mandate then we have a major flaw in our scripture. Ergo the mandates that are there have to be definitive.Some of us find it reasonable to draw a conclusion from the examples given in the absence of a definitive mandate.
You seem to choose to declare a definitive mandate concluded from the lack of a definitive mandate.
We've all heard you make the claim a thousand times, after all...Every heretic, weirdo, false prophet and Catholic who ever existed said that they were drawing reasonable conclusions.
1And when the people saw that Moses delayed to come down out of the mount, the people gathered themselves together unto Aaron, and said unto him, Up, make us gods, which shall go before us; for as forthis Moses, the man that brought us up out of the land of Egypt, we wot not what is become of him.Why is there an absence of a definitive mandate?
I would counter that “reasonable conclusions” is how traditions get started, not a slavish adherence to the text at all costs.1And when the people saw that Moses delayed to come down out of the mount, the people gathered themselves together unto Aaron, and said unto him, Up, make us gods, which shall go before us; for as forthis Moses, the man that brought us up out of the land of Egypt, we wot not what is become of him.
Yup, people get uncomfortable when something isn’t definite.
So they create something definite, and another human tradition takes form.
You’re not dealing in reality anymore Mark. I’m sorry but you’re just lashing out because you’re encountering resistance and you don’t have any answers.We've all heard you make the claim a thousand times, after all...
If Yah had actually given us a precise definition that we could adhere to, we wouldn’t have any disagreement.I would counter that “reasonable conclusions” is how traditions get started, not a slavish adherence to the text at all costs.
I'm sorry you can't read a story for comprehension, Zec, or understand what precedent is about. I bet 'parables' really flummox you...You’re not dealing in reality anymore Mark. I’m sorry but you’re just lashing out because you’re encountering resistance and you don’t have any answers.
why do you think distinct? what do you think covering means in the verse? when I read this particular verse, it seems to indicate to consummate a grown orphan girl and thus making a covenant aka marriage.What's more Ez 16:8 refers to Yahweh making a covenant with the now grown orphan girl at essentially the same time as her "covering" but the actions are distinct from each other.
So, the issue, and the question:Why is there an absence of a definitive mandate? Why is a matter of life and death left obscured? If there isn’t a definitive mandate then we have a major flaw in our scripture. Ergo the mandates that are there have to be definitive.
...hours of waffly talk that you claim includes the answer but actually never does, give the actual answer itself.
So you’re not married? You didn’t send a servant on a long camel journey to bring you back a cousin bride you had never met after negotiating with her brother. If Isaac and Rebecca set the best precedent then thats what we’ll do, but you don’t really believe that. You just want to take the negotiations and then consent part. You actually don’t care about the precedent.The essence of the blinders seem to be here:
So, the issue, and the question:
I contend that the most important goal in our lives should be to hear the words from The Master, "Well done, thou good and faithful servant!"
(Zec will no doubt disagree; it's only told as an example, and later as a parable, not as a "mandate" or even a "commandment.")
What does it mean, to be a "good and faithful servant"?
And I contend that Scripture is full of examples, and counter-examples. Samuel doesn't like me referencing them, evidently, because citing them involves
...and I have in fact, and love referencing it, gone into great detail about the very story that I contend is at the heart of MOST of the discussion* in this thread:
The "good and faithful servant" (Yahushua's term, I contend, not mine) who was tasked with finding a bride for Isaac, and did exactly that. I will even suggest that it is important to note that NOWHERE in that story is Abraham's servant even given a name! And that somehow matters, too.
What matters is that he "came in the name of his master (Abraham)" to do his will, as he was commanded. And, as his master commanded, so he did.
And at the end of that story, we have the most detailed example of a marriage covenant in the entire Book. AND the precedent for what the English Common Law calls "agency," or sometimes "power of attorney," and what the entire Bible teaches as what it MEANS to "come in the Name of," our own Teacher. And the most succinct, one sentence description of marriage (and love in that context, too!) in all of Scripture.
It's not framed as a "commandment." It's TEACHING. (In Hebrew, it is 'torah'.)
It's arguably not a matter of "life and death," even - just having a good life, and being a good servant to Him. Although that may be the most important thing we can understand.
And we'd certainly be Fools to ignore it.
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* There are other stories, of course, that deal with both prostitution and adultery, separately. But without marriage, there can be no 'adultery', and there are certainly stories (Dinah, Judah and Tamar) that might SEEM to involve 'prostitution', but really don't - so that's part of the confusion some seem to have. But understanding precedent is the answer there, too.
PS> I'm fine if this needs to be the start of a separate thread, but it's my summary here.
It is distinct because it is separately mentioned. We can surmise that each action would(could) occur roughly the same time, or NOT! Recall the betrothal of Joseph and Mary. She belonged to him and it was HIS decision to continue. God recognized the validity of the relationship and even though God is Sovereign over everything, He chose to address the patriarch Joseph and convince him to carry on and consummate the relationship (already begun) after the birth of Jesus. According to the typical gestation that means 9 months of no sexual activity(or longer including the purification time) where there was the husbandly responsibility(food shelter clothing) with no seed planting(sex). It of course is NOT typical.why do you think distinct? what do you think covering means in the verse? when I read it this particular verse it seems to indicate to consummate a grown orphan girl is a making a covenant aka marriage.
What’s stupid about that? You’re the one who said Isaac and Rebecca are the best precedent for marriage. You’re the one who said precedent should be binding. I’m literally just quoting you.Are you really that stupid? Or do you just pretend to be when it is less embarrassing than admitting mistakes?
"Stupid is as stupid does." -- Forrest GumpWhat’s stupid about that? You’re the one who said Isaac and Rebecca are the best precedent for marriage.